Crocodile
- 12 Sep 2003 23:06
We have lots of experienced traders on MoneyAM who would be glad to help if you have any trading questions.
brain2brain
- 02 Apr 2004 16:37
- 397 of 460
Could someone please explain the meaning and implication of the following.
Does it mean that the company wants to issue more shares? If it does mean this what is the effect on shares already held? Will they be devalued by dilution?
Thanks in anticipation
B2B
Patientline plc ('the Company')
Additional Listing
Application has today been made to the UK Listing Authority and the London Stock
Exchange for a total of 42,425 ordinary shares of 5p each in the Company
('Ordinary Shares') to be admitted to the Official List and to trading on the
London Stock Exchange's main market. Of the 42,425 Ordinary Shares being issued,
40,231 Ordinary Shares are being issued pursuant to the exercise of options,
with the remaining 2,194 being issued under the Share Purchase Agreement for
TVTEL BV dated 1 December 2001.
Admission of all the Ordinary Shares is expected to become effective on 8 April
2004.
2 April 2004
brain2brain
- 02 Apr 2004 23:02
- 400 of 460
brain2brain
- 02 Apr 2004 23:03
- 401 of 460
Little woman
Many thanks for that.
B2B
snoball
- 04 Apr 2004 20:49
- 402 of 460
kantona
- 09 Apr 2004 23:09
- 403 of 460
i wonder of anyone can assist pse ...
Q. What is significance of the 'close period' and what is it's relevance i.e when a company issue's a Pre Closed Period Update . I guess it's to do with the end of a certain trading period etc..but half knowledge can be dangerous so vll be grateful for the correct info.
Q.On the companys account's this does appear alot .. don't suppose anyone know's what these terms mean
i.Goodwill amortisation
ii. Goodwill impairment
many thx in anticiaption
Seymour Clearly
- 09 Apr 2004 23:20
- 404 of 460
kantona
The company cannot issue any trading statements but can issue significant news, also directors cannot sell / buy shares in the close period. Hence pre-close trading updates.
2nd Q - not at all sure!
jeffmack
- 10 Apr 2004 08:28
- 405 of 460
kantona
Goodwill is something that can be on a balance sheet but is not a physical asset. If you bought a shop and its stock that might be worth 50,000, you might have to pay 75,000, the 25,000 being for the reputation that the shop has built up in the area. There is no physical asset but it has some worth in terms of potential sales.
Most analyst when looking at a company's balance sheet will strip out the goodwill, therefore companies look to reduce that value on their balance sheet either in one hit over a period of years (amortisation)
Crocodile
- 10 Apr 2004 18:52
- 406 of 460
Good answer Jeff ..
kantona
- 11 Apr 2004 12:58
- 407 of 460
thx everyone ..
Zoltar
- 11 Apr 2004 13:26
- 408 of 460
Croc.
Re post 002 question 2
Do you think this is likely to be any good?
http://store.yahoo.com/onlinetrading/eltradguidfo.html
dominic
- 14 Apr 2004 17:16
- 409 of 460
The close period is defined under the Model Code, part of the Yellow Book, which you can find by doing a search in the UKLA part of the FSA website.
There is also some information here:
http://www.moneyam.com/sharesmag/edition60/?page=letters
The close period restricts dealings by directors, the company itself and related persons in the company's own securities in the period between the close of the accounting period and the publication of results which is usually but not always around 2 months. The company usually can't buy back its shares either, like Northern Foods at the moment, although there are exemptions.
Contrary to popular belief it is nothing to do with the company updating or releasing statements to the market. There is a continuous obligation under the Listing Rules to keep the marketplace informed of anything like business performance which would have an effect on the share price if released.
brain2brain
- 18 Apr 2004 19:11
- 410 of 460
Can someone please give me some information about dividends please? I bought some shares in Domino's Pizza a couple of months ago. Unfortunately they have slipped off their previous growth trend so I am looking to sell them. At present they are ex-dividend. The dividend date is 29th April. My questions are.............. How do I receive the dividend? Is it sent by post to me or to my account with my broker? Is the day after the dividend date the earliest I can sell the shares without losing the dividend? Lastly, in my complete ignorance, when a figure is quoted for a dividend is it a percentage or is the figure in pence per share.
Many thanks for any replies.
B2B
38
- 18 Apr 2004 20:09
- 411 of 460
you should be able to sell them now and keep the divi (of 2.18p per share) which will be paid on the 30th April.
If you hold the stock in your own name you will rx the divi.
If you have a nominee account with your broker they will collec the divi on your behalf.
If you want it paid out to you it is probably worth while letting your broker know, otherwise it is likely to sit on your earnings account with them for a while.
cheers
apple
- 20 Apr 2004 11:14
- 412 of 460
FirstCall
Interesting to view your question in hindsight after LLOY fell to 405p
torquay
- 20 Apr 2004 14:42
- 413 of 460
I have for many years played the divi's to give a guaranteed return as well as making a capital gain.I have bought as late as 4.29pm the day before a share goes ex-divi the next day,then sold(very rarely as price adjusts for the divi)on the ex-divi day.
The normal ploy is to get a good divi then keep enough funds to pound cost average in order to get out with the divi and also having covererd your costs.Along with in nearly all a profit in the shares.
The period usually is anywhere on average between days to 3/4 weeks.
This has recently worked on BARC LGEN LLOY SHEL which all paid a good percentage return against annual Building Society rates.
brain2brain
- 20 Apr 2004 18:40
- 414 of 460
Many thanks 38 / Torquay
Your comments have been most useful.
B2B
Marzipan
- 22 Apr 2004 09:46
- 415 of 460
My 1st Divi play.
Have just tried the divi play for the first time. Did not do well.
BA and Logica paid 1100 and 510 but the drop in share price represented 2200 and 3000 pounds respectively.
What I would have done differently would be to have sold both shares on Tues when they passed their peak, then shorted overnight, paid the 1620 divi so I would have made 5200 less divi = 3580 profit.
I would also be in the position of being able to buy both shares at a cheaper price... BA Tues peak was 226 and Wed went to 211. Log peak was 260 and Wed went to 238.
Will possibly try this next week .... GKN (3.31% divi)
torquay
- 22 Apr 2004 13:46
- 416 of 460
Hi Marzipan
Which method would you have used to short?
It appears you have a different approach to me.